Hath not a Jew eyes?:
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Posted by Hannah on October 15, 19103 at 14:17:12:
In Reply to: Shylocks speach posted by Chris Adams on March 31, 19102 at 18:19:49:
I think the thing is that Shakespeare was way ahead of his time in terms of racial opinions. He was writing plays in order to sell tickets, so he goes out of his way to make Shylock's downfall 'funny', but interwoven in this are speeches about equality that do not seem likely to have come from an Elizabethan. (See also the sensitivity he shows towards Othello and Caliban.) I think Shakespeare meant this speech and I think Shylock meant this speech: while admittedly he does use it to justify murder I don't think this detracts from how believable it is. Shylock's character is another issue but I think Shakespeare wrote it to promote a bit of thought from his bigotted audience, and perhaps because he realised it might last until the 21st century when it really hits home.
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